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I don’t understand this Philosophy question and need help to study.As you read these pages, please focus more specifically on chapters 4-9 from Book IX, and try to give a one-or-two-paragraph answer to each of the two following questions: 1º) Why is it the case according to Aristotle that in virtuous friendship (philia) friends enjoy more being in the position of the benefactor than in the position of the one who benefits from friendship? What alternative account of this apparent paradox does Aristotle refute, and how does this inform his interpretation of virtuous self-love? 2º) The Greek substantive philautia (self-love / love of self) is composed of the verb philein (to love, to be friend with) and the reflexive pronoun auton (oneself). It would thus seem that philautia is a concept derived from a more primary concept of philia (love, friendship). Yet, doesn’t Aristotle’s account of virtuous philia (friendship) in Book IX suggest that it is in fact the contrary, and that our comprehension of philia is founded on our more original comprehension of self-love (philautia)?
Requirements: .doc file | Discussion | 1 pages, Double spaced